Sunday Morning Greek Blog

January 17, 2026

Lectionary Help (Matthew 4:12–23)

Lectionary Helps for the Third Sunday After Epiphany, Year A, January 25, 2026.

[NOTE: As a bonus, the following addresses The Skeptic’s Annotated Bible’s (SAB) contention that the presumed discrepancy described herein and seeks to harmonize the two accounts. Reference ≠337 in SAB.]

If you read last week’s Lectionary Help post (Lectionary Helps for John 1:29–42 | Sunday Morning Greek Blog), you’ll remember that I mentioned the time sequence in John 1:29ff (repeated use of “the next day”). I believe this is important to help sort out what appears to be a discrepancy in John’s story of Andrew and Peter meeting Jesus on the same day they’re introduced to him (John 1:40) versus Matthew’s account of calling Andrew and Peter to follow him as they’re fishing in the Sea of Galilee in this week’s passage (4:12–23).

Matthew’s account comes after Jesus’s temptation in the wilderness for 40 days, and it indicates that after the temptation, Jesus went into Galilee in fulfillment of Isaiah 9, which is also one of this week’s lectionary passages. A careful comparison of the language between John’s and Matthew’s accounts should clear this up. In John’s gospel, Andrew and Peter are introduced to Jesus, but they were not “following” in the sense of having committed themselves to be his disciple. They simply wanted to know where he was staying and did happen to spend at least part of the day with Jesus.

On “the next day,” John says Jesus went to Galilee, where he called Philip and Nathaniel to follow him. Note that Jesus had NOT explicitly asked Andrew and Peter to follow him on the previous day, so Philip and Nathaniel are the first ones to get asked directly in John’s account. Perhaps it is in this time frame (“a few days”) that Jesus also makes his formal call to Andrew, Peter, James, and John, as described in Matthew’s account.

So how do we reconcile this? John, like Matthew, seems to have Isaiah 9 in mind as he writes the opening chapters of his gospel, especially with several references to Jesus as the “light.” In one sense, especially in John 1:1–5, this “light” is a reference to the first day of creation. But as Jesus moves into Galilee, “light” takes on the added significance of the prophetic declaration in Isaiah 9:2:

The people walking in darkness

have seen a great light;

on those living in the land of deep darkness

a light has dawned.[1]

John 2:12 is where the time references start to get vague. We have the story of Jesus clearing the Temple, which in other Gospel accounts happens near the end of Jesus’s earthly ministry.[2] I believe John may be dropping that story in here to fit another theme from Isaiah 9, especially vv. 4 and 7d: “You have shattered the yoke that burdens them.” Regardless, the text does say he returned to Jerusalem. When Jesus cleared the Temple will have to be the subject of another post.

It seems reasonable to assume that John 3 is still in sequence with the chronology of the first two chapters. John uses the Greek particle δε to introduce the chapter, which suggests a continuity of the narrative.[3] The “verdict” in vs. 19: “Light has come into the world, but people loved darkness instead of light because their deeds were evil,”[4] because it seems to be some sort of climactic statement or hinge verse, ties into Isaiah 9:2, so its inclusion here is both thematic and chronological. In 3:22, we have a reference to Jesus and his disciples spending some time in the Judean countryside “before John was put in prison” (3:24). What’s interesting here, and this is key, is that Matthew 4 doesn’t actually use the Greek noun for “prison,” φυλακή (phylakē), that John uses in 3:24. Matthew uses the verb παραδίδωμι (paradidōmi), which is more like an arrest or a detainment. It isn’t until Matthew 14 that he says Herod threw John in φυλακή.

In John 4, then, we are still contemporaneous with the first three chapters, because John says that Jesus “went back once more to Galilee. Now he had to go through Samaria.” John introduces chapter 4 with οὖν (oun), which implies the events of chapter 3 have prompted him to return to Galilee. This again raises the connection between Isaiah 9 and these early chapters of John’s gospel. It is in John 4 where Jesus first declares that he is the Messiah in John’s gospel. This is how he honors “Galilee of the Nations” (Isaiah 9:1b). (See my post from 2011 Honoring Galilee | Sunday Morning Greek Blog.)

We do not have any record of John the Baptist’s death or actual imprisonment or arrest in John’s gospel, so it is difficult to harmonize that aspect of Matthew’s account. The closest he hints at it is in John 5:35, where he speaks of John the Baptist in the past tense. But the fact that Matthew uses a different term to indicate John’s legal status does NOT conflict, then, with John 3:24. John may be detained or under “house arrest” (remember, Herod used to like to listen to John preach), but he’s not technically “in prison” in John’s account or in Matthew’s account in chapter 4. Once he’s in prison, it would seem, his fate is sealed.

The evidence presented here is sufficient, then, to resolve the apparent discrepancy and debunk SAB‘s contention that this represents an irreconcilable contradiction.

Wow, this one got a lot more involved than I expected once I started diving into it. I’m already halfway done, it seems, with next week’s sermon prep and I still haven’t finished tomorrow’s message! I do hope you find these Lectionary Help articles useful. I got what I considered to be a decent response to the first one last week, so I’m motivated to keep going. Peace to all of you, and if you’re in the Midwest, stay warm!

Pastor Scott Stocking, M.Div.

My views and interpretations are my own unless otherwise attributed.

As always, your comments and feedback are welcome.


[1] The New International Version. 2011. Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan.

[2] See, for example, Blomberg, Craig L. 2001. The Historical Reliability of John’s Gospel. England: Apollos, p. 87, where he notes the passage is “somewhat unconnected to its immediate context.”

[3] δε. BAG-D: “3. Resuming a discourse that has been interrupted.”

[4] The New International Version. 2011. Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan.

August 13, 2024

Debunking The Skeptics Annotated Bible (SAB): Romans 1:3

I’m down to preaching on just the last Sunday of the month now, so I thought I’d take a stab at some apologetic articles on my off weeks and make a series out of the posts. I’ve referenced before the work of Steve Wells, The Skeptic’s Annotated Bible (SAB), in which he categorizes several different types of what he considers to be deficiencies in the biblical text like perceived or apparent inconsistencies, worldviews that would not have even been considered in biblical times, and things he thinks are ridiculous or silly. He uses the King James Version of the Bible, which is probably in the public domain at this point, so he didn’t even choose a good modern translation to critique. His criticisms reflect an extremely shallow understanding of Scripture and the nature and character of ancient texts generally, so admittedly, his work is low-hanging fruit for those of us who are Bible ninjas when it comes to defending the faith.

Having said that, then, I’ll tackle Romans 1:3 in this article (≠329)[1], but it will lend itself to debunking some of the other related inconsistencies as well.

The first is Romans 1:3, citing the KJV text he uses:

Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;[2]

Here’s the 2011 NIV translation of the same verse:

regarding his Son, who as to his earthly life g was a descendant of David,[3]

And since this is a blog about Greek, I’ll throw in the Greek text for giggles.

3 περὶ τοῦ υἱοῦ αὐτοῦ τοῦ γενομένου ἐκ σπέρματος Δαυὶδ κατὰ σάρκα,[4]

The question Wells asks here about the contradiction is: “Was Joseph the father of Jesus?” Under each entry in the index, he identifies other verses in the Bible that he has labeled with the same number and breaks the list down into the supposed contradictory answers. Interestingly enough, he seems to have his verses mixed up in the index entry, as he lists this particular verse under the “Yes” answer category, while the verses in Gospels for the birth stories of Jesus that explicitly identify Joseph as Jesus’s earthly “father” are under the “No” category.

First of all, basic common sense would leave most people to believe that “seed” is being used metaphorically here, not necessarily in reference to a biological child of the person who produced the “seed,” but more broadly to the concept of “descendant.” In fact, when the word for seed [σπέρμα (sperma), ατος (atos), τό (to)[5]] is not used to mean an actual seed of a plant, it appears in contexts where the concept of having descendants is emphasized (see, for example, Mark 12:20–22, the concept of levirate marriage). So Paul in Romans 1:3 isn’t talking about Jesus’s biological father (bio dad for you young ‘uns), but about Jesus coming from the lineage of David, through which the prophets of the Old Testament declared the Messiah would be born. Pretty straightforward, right?

But let’s not stop there, because if Paul had intended to say David was Jesus’s bio dad, he would have had a perfectly good Greek word to use, and he could have taken it straight from Matthew’s genealogy in Matthew 1:1–17, and as such, I’ll address some other contradictions (≠326 Matthew/Luke genealogy; ≠328 Who was Jesus’s paternal grandfather?; ≠261 Matthew/1 Chronicles genealogies; ≠325 number of generations) Wells identifies, the discrepancy between Matthew’s and Luke’s genealogies. The Greek word γεννάω (gennaō), according to Louw-Nida’s reference, means “the male role in causing the conception and birth of a child—‘to be the father of, to procreate, to beget.’ ”[6] So this is yet another proof that there’s no need to identify a contradiction in Romans 1:3, because Paul didn’t use the same term as Matthew there.

But wait! It gets even better! While Matthew’s genealogy begins with Abraham, the father of God’s covenant people, and ends with Joseph, Luke’s genealogy begins with Joseph and goes backwards to creation and Adam, the first man (of whom Jesus is the archetype, that is, the firstborn of all creation). Matthew’s genealogy probably skips a generation here or there so he can fit it into his three “fourteen generations” pattern (by the way, 3 x 14 = 42, so Jesus is the answer to the question of “What is the meaning of life, the universe, everything?” Some of my readers will get that.). But you can trace the genealogy to a certain historical point from the end of Ruth and in 1 Chronicles 3:10–17.

The standard historical interpretation of Luke’s “alternate” genealogy is that it traces Jesus’s lineage back through Mary and not Joseph. Note that when Luke introduces the genealogy, he says “being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph” (Luke 3:23 KJV). But verse 23 is the only time we see the word for “son” in the Greek text. The rest of the genealogy is just the genitive form of the definite article, so it’s literally “Joseph of Heli of Matthat of Levi…” and so on. “Son of” can be fairly discerned from the context, but it’s possible Luke uses just the definite article to cover his bases in case someone is missing from the genealogy. We know nothing about Jesus’s grandparents on either side, so it’s possible that the simple “of” in the first instance (“of Heli”) is connecting Joseph to Mary’s parents or lineage. After all, in Jewish tradition, the child’s “Jewishness” comes from the mother.

This is just one example of the shallow and rather thoughtless and unscholarly opposition to the truth and integrity of Scripture you’ll find in Wells’ SAB. Your comments made in good faith are always welcome. If you’d like to read more critiques about the SAB, I want to recommend you to my colleague SlimJim’s blog, The Domain for Truth (wordpress.com). He is an outstanding apologist for the faith.

Peace,

Pastor Scott Stocking, M.Div.

My views are my own.


[1] NOTE: As I go forward in this series, I will “tag” the index numbers so you can easily search for the contradictions among my blog posts.

[2] The Holy Bible: King James Version. 2009. Electronic Edition of the 1900 Authorized Version. Bellingham, WA: Logos Research Systems, Inc.

[3] The New International Version. 2011. Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan.

[4] Aland, Kurt, Matthew Black, Carlo M. Martini, Bruce M. Metzger, Maurice A. Robinson, and Allen Wikgren. 1993; 2006. The Greek New Testament, Fourth Revised Edition (with Morphology). Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft.

[5] Swanson, James. 1997. In Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains: Greek (New Testament), electronic ed. Oak Harbor: Logos Research Systems, Inc.; those of you who know Greek will recognize that the noun is neuter, not masculine or feminine.

[6] Louw, Johannes P., and Eugene Albert Nida. 1996. In Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Based on Semantic Domains, electronic ed. of the 2nd edition., 1:256. New York: United Bible Societies.

Website Powered by WordPress.com.